Frequently Asked Questions
Is it true that following laws does not insure one’s salvation?
True. Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law, having been made a curse for us [Gal.3:13]. Christ is the end of the law for everyone who believes [Rom.10:4]. Whoever keeps the whole law and stumbles in one point has become guilty of all [Jas.2:10]. If righteousness comes through law, Christ died in vain [Gal.2:21].
Jesus said He did not come to abolish the law, but to fulfill [Mt.5:17-20]. Why do Christians not then follow the law?
The Law and the Prophets spoke things about Christ that must be fulfilled [Lk.24:44]. He is that Prophet who was to come like unto Moses [Deut.18:18, 19; Acts 3:20-23]. He is the bread of heaven [Jn.6:31-33]. He is the final great high priest [Heb.4:14-16]. He is the final sacrifice which takes away the sins of the world [Jn.1:29]. He is the true temple [Jn.1:14; 2:19-22]. Specific prophesies regarding his birth [Mic.5:2], and his death for sins had to be fulfilled [Ps.22; Isa.53]. Finally, the true intent of the Law had to be fulfilled. Christ came to change man’s behavior by transforming his heart from within by imparting His very life to a repentant, believing man. He has fulfilled and thus made the Law obsolete [Heb.8:13] by surpassing it in the new covenant [Heb.10:16-18]. The purpose of the Law was to lead us to Christ [Gal.3:24, 25], and once we have come to Christ, the Law has fulfilled its purpose since the believer now possesses what the law could never give him; i.e. life and godliness [Rom.8:3,4].
John 3:16 says that everlasting life belongs to those who believe in Jesus. But Jesus said in Mk.10:17-22 that keeping laws brings everlasting life. This is what Muslims do in obedience to Surah 23:2-12.
This is a misquote of the Qur’an. This Surah does not say that eternal life will be obtained by keeping laws. There is no assurance of eternal life for any Muslim according to the Qur’an or any of their traditions. Not even the prophets have that assurance until the final day of judgment when the will of Allah will determine all. John 3:16 is correct. Eternal life is received by believing in Jesus [Jn.5:24]. Mk.10 only shows us a man who said he had kept all of the commands from his youth and yet did not have eternal life. If eternal life was to be obtained by keeping laws, surely this man would have had it and needed not to ask Jesus at all. The point is, that his keeping of laws did not assure him of possessing what he knew he lacked. Jesus purposefully omitted the 10th commandment, "You shall not covet," in His list to the young man. This was the very problem that kept him from coming to Jesus in order to obtain eternal life. Jesus told him, in effect, "Repent of your coveting and come and follow Me." Repentance and following Christ are the means to eternal life, not keeping laws.Back to the Top
This verse does not say that the Bible is incomplete. This merely says that what God wanted recorded of all that Jesus did and taught was written that we might believe and obtain eternal life through Him [Jn.20:30, 31]. Certainly all of the Word of God is highly selective narrative. Actually, few details have been given to us. Out of the years of Abraham’s life, how much do we really know? Thirteen years passed between the conception of Ishmael and the Lord speaking to him again [Gen.16:16; 17:1]. All things necessary for life and godliness have been recorded for us in His most excellent Word [2 Pet.1:3, 4]. Details that do not serve the spiritual purposes of God in providing needful information for our spiritual well-being have been omitted. The Word of God receives its fitting and final conclusion in the Revelation, the last book of the New Testament. Nothing is to be added or taken away from it, or the curse of God is upon whoever does so [Rev.22:18, 19].
The Bible describes life as it is in reality, both the good and the bad. Lot sinned. This should not surprise even a Muslim who believes that all men sin, including even a prophet like Lot. David did not have sex with this virgin, and thus no sin occurred [I Kings 1:4].
If the Bible is the Word of God, then why does it forbid the things mentioned in Deut.14:21?
This only would be viewed as not part of the Word of God because of what Muslims practice. Actually, these are some of the things that Jesus has fulfilled, thus making them obsolete and irrelevant to spiritual progress in godliness. Holiness is not being free from ceremonial defilement. It is purity of heart. Jesus declared all foods clean [Mk.7:19]. It is a non-issue for a Christian.
Moses wrote Deuteronomy and this book contains the record of his death [Deut.34:5]. This only shows that this last portion of Deuteronomy was penned by Joshua, who had already been commissioned to follow Moses as the next leader of Israel and who also wrote the Word of God (i.e. the book of Joshua) [Deut.31:23].
If the Bible is the Word of God, why are there so many versions?
This is mostly due to the translations that have been made into various languages. There are slight differences between translations but the message remains the same and is clear as to what salvation is in Christ. Though the Qur’an is throughout the world in Arabic, not even the Islamic scholars can agree on many of its interpretations. Some passages are said to be able to be understood by Allah alone. God has been pleased to bring His Word to people in the language they understand, not bring people to a foreign language like Arabic before they can know what He says. The Roman Catholics have added 14 books to the Old and New Testaments in their version of the Bible. By their own admission and according to all historical records, this was done as a result of the Council of Trent which began in 1546 AD and had not been included in any versions of the Bible up until that time
Why is the book of Song of Solomon in the Bible since it is full of unclean and unspiritual words?
The Scriptures tell us that marriage is held in honor among all and that the bed is undefiled. It is fornicators and adulterers that God will judge [Heb.13:4]. Marital relations are noble and pure as created by God between a man and his wife. There is nothing immoral about Song of Solomon as it is describing normal and proper love between a man and his wife [S. of S.3:11]. Nothing immoral is to be found therein. Secondly, the husband and wife relationship picture God and His people, Christ and the church [Isa.62:4, 5, Ezek.16:7,8; Hos.2:19, 20; Jn.3:29; 2 Cor.11:2; Eph.5:23, 31, 32; Rev.19:7-9]. If it is read with this as the metaphor behind the words, a blessed and edifying message is seen concerning the intimacy of love and devotion between Christ and church.
It is not possible for any sinful man to change the Word of God. God is greater than any man and His Word is everlasting. Listen to the Word of God, "Forever, O Lord, Your Word is settled in heaven" [Ps.119:89]. "Jesus answered them and said, ‘My teaching is not Mine, but His who sent Me. If anyone is willing to do His will, he will know the teaching, whether it is of God or whether I speak from Myself. He who speaks from himself seeks his own glory; but He who is seeking the glory of the One who sent Him, He is true, and there is no unrighteousness in Him’" [Jn.7:16-18]. Even the Qur’an says this: "No change can there be in the Words of Allah. This is indeed the supreme Triumph" [Surah 10:64]. Gave eus gospel...
Judas threw his 30 pieces of silver into the sanctuary which the priests used to buy a field which was known as the field of blood [Mt.27:3-10]. Judas hung himself [Mt.27:5] and then fell from there and burst open [Acts 1:18].Back to the Top
12 Christians’ prayers are not acceptable to God because they do not practice ablution as Ex.40:30-32 and Jn.13:14-17 command.
The passage in Ex.40 refers specifically to the priests of Levi in the nation of Israel, and not to Christians in general. Their priesthood having been ended [Heb.7:11-28], the ablution is irrelevant for Christians to practice. Jn.13 does not prescribe ablution for Christians to practice with respect to themselves, but rather enjoins us to wash one another’s feet, not our own. This is a spiritual cleansing that all must receive from Christ if we are to have our portion in Him [v.8] and that we must apply to our brethren by washing them with the water of the Word when they become defiled by the world [Eph.5:26; Gal.6:1; I Thess.5:14, etc.]. Truly, the washing of hands ceremonially was an external religious practice that did not provide any true cleansing, and had no value in making a man clean before God [Mk.7:1-8]. In fact, Jesus said to be unwashed does not defile a man [Mt.15:17-20].
The turban was the particular head covering for the high priest in Israel alone, not for the Israelites in general, nor even for the other priests [Ex.28:37-41]. In Zech.3, Joshua was the high priest and was to be clothed with a clean turban as was appropriate to his office. Christians are not Israelite high priests.
In the New Testament, we are told to leave these elementary teachings about washings in order to move on into maturity in Christ [Heb.6:1-3]. These are all external ordinances which are of no value against fleshly indulgence, but were only shadows of what was to come in Christ who alone can purge the heart of man [Col.2:16, 20-23].
In the Matthew passage it was the devil who said to bow down and worship him which Jesus refused to do. They did bow in the Nehemiah passage but this was not commanded of them nor does this establish a precedent for a form of worship. True worship is in Spirit and truth, not in a particular place or position of body. Jesus abolished the practice of making pilgrimage to worship. It was no longer a geographical issue attended with various ceremonies and holy places; neither in this mountain nor in Jerusalem [Jn.4:23, 24].Back to the Top
Yes. It was the message of the prophets that He would do so. Psalm 22 describes His crucifixion in many details. Isaiah 53 is very specific about it. It was the eternal plan of God that He do so as Isa.53:4, 6, 10, 11 make very plain. It was God’s predetermined purpose that He die in this way [Acts 2:23].
In Mt. 26:39-44 Jesus prayed that the cup might pass from Him. The Scriptures say that His prayer was answered [Mt.7:7-10; Heb.5:7]. Therefore He was not crucified just like the Qu’ran tells us [Surah 4:157].
Actually, what Jesus prayed was that if possible this cup might be removed, yet not My will be done but Thine. He did not simply pray that the cup would pass away altogether. The reference to the Qur’an only shows us that the boasting claim of the Jews was refuted. That is, they were not responsible for His death though they thought that they were. It was actually God who delivered Him over to death and He did so by Jesus’ own voluntary choice; no man took His life from Him [Jn.10:17, 18]. Blood and water came out of the body of Jesus after His death when He was pierced by a spear [Jn.19:33-35]. Eyewitnesses testified to His death and this occurrence. Surah 4:158 says that God raised Him up to Himself. Resurrection follows death.
You Christians say that Jesus carried His cross, yet the Bible says that Simon did.
Both Jesus and Simon of Cyrene carried Jesus’ cross; He part way, and then Simon [Jn.19:17; Mk.15:21,22].
If Jesus was crucified to take away sins, why does women’s pain in childbirth continue up until today without being erased?
The salvation of our souls is our present possession, the redemption of the body is yet future [Rom.8:22-25].Back to the Top
Why are Christians advertising miracles and healing when in the Bible the suffering were brought to Jesus and not to miracle campaigns? All healing comes from God. He alone can perform miracles, though at times He uses men to do so as was done in the case of Moses, Jesus, and other prophets. It is unfortunate that Christians have much abused the miraculous in our generation which has made the true message of salvation in Christ appear foolish to many.
Since the Bible says that women ought to keep silent in church and not teach men [I Cor.14:34,35; I Tim.2:11,12], why then do they?
It is true. Women are not to be the spiritual leaders and teachers of the church. Only those who directly disobey the Word of God allow this practice to exist in the church. There is no excuse for Christians’ misbehavior in this.
The Bible says that clapping is not good in church [Ezek.25:6,7], why do Christians do it?
This passage is talking about how God did not approve of the nation of Ammon who clapped and rejoiced at the destruction of Israel. It is not talking about the church.Back to the Top
You Christians say that all men are sinners because of Adam’s sin, yet Jesus said that these people were of the kingdom [Mk.10:13-16]. How can this be since no sinner can enter heaven? Actually, what Jesus said in this passage is that the kingdom of heaven belongs to such like these. Like children. In what sense? In the sense that a child is totally dependent upon his father for protection, provision, wisdom, and training. All of God’s children come to Him in this way: helpless, ignorant, needy, and dependent.
Since the Bible says that each person will bear their own sin [Ezek.18:20], why do you Christians say that Adam’s sin is upon all men?
Job 14:4 answers this, "Who can bring a clean thing out of an unclean? Not one". Though we are all born sinful as a result of Adam’s sin, we all choose to sin throughout our lives. It is these sins that we are judged for [2 Cor.5:10].Back to the Top